A 58-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a several-day history of progressive, debilitating fatigue and generalized malaise. She reports new-onset dark, tea-colored urine (cola-colored) and a significant reduction in her urine output. She also notes new headaches and visual disturbances, which she attributes to feeling unwell. Her home medications include:
Vital Signs at Presentation:
Physical Examination Findings:
Key Laboratory Findings:
Test
Result
Reference / Baseline
Hemoglobin (Hb)
8.7 g/dL
(Down from 12 g/dL 2 weeks prior)
Platelets
85,000/µL
(Thrombocytopenia)
Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)
580 U/L
(Markedly elevated)
Haptoglobin
< 30 mg/dL
(Undetectable)
Peripheral Smear
2+ schistocytes
(Evidence of microangiopathic hemolysis)
Serum Creatinine
3.2 mg/dL
(Baseline: 1.1 mg/dL)
Urinalysis
Appearance
Dark/Amber
Blood
3+
Protein
2+
Microscopy
20-30 RBCs/HPF (microscopic hematuria)
No casts seen
C4d Staining (recent biopsy)
Negative
Donor-Specific Antibodies (DSA)
None Detected
Wrong Answer: A. Acute antibody-mediated rejection (AMR)
Right Answer: B. Tacrolimus-induced thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) Rationale: Key Clues: Triad of AKI + MAHA (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: schistocytes, ↓Hb, ↑LDH, ↓haptoglobin) + thrombocytopenia in a CNI-treated transplant patient. The absence of DSA/C4d rules out AMR (A). TMA Nuance: CNIs cause endothelial injury leading to TMA. "Therapeutic" tacrolimus levels don't exclude toxicity. AMR (A) is a prime distractor due to hemolysis/AKI but requires DSA/C4d evidence. DIC (D) lacks fever/procoagulant labs (e.g., normal PT/INR). De novo GN (C) wouldn't explain MAHA/thrombocytopenia.
Wrong Answer: C. De novo glomerulonephritis (e.g., IgA nephropathy)
Wrong Answer: D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) from occult infection